How has ‘what is moral’ come to be scientifically settled?
Different cultures across the world have different morals. Yet for this statement to be true, there must be an agreed scientific consensus on a quantitative metric and its impact on a fundamentally unscientific det of cultural rules.
The appeal to scientific authority in this statement undermines a good moral argument to be made about inequity and excessive individual rights to property.
This is just a call to some pop-science, at best, meant to engage the rage. It has no better scientific basis than trickle down economics does.
Claiming a scientific authority that doesn’t exist and someone calling you on it, isn’t putting words in your mouth. Its a reaction to an unjustified claim to authority, that undermines that authority when it is actually appropriate.
It also undermines your own argument. Its good to see you’re reply shifted position.