The last sentence in the ‘Plain Language summary’ says “Cranberry products (such as tablets or capsules) were also ineffective (although had the same effect as taking antibiotics), possibly due to lack of potency of the ‘active ingredient’.” …What?
How could they have the same effect as antibiotics and be ineffective at the same time? Is this suggesting antibiotics are ineffective against UTIs? Aren’t antibiotics used to treat UTIs to begin with?
If someone could explain any or all of that to me, I would appreciate it greatly. My girlfriend just got a UTI and is very scared. I found this article, but it seems to contradict itself in a few places, to me. I’m not a scientist, so I recognize that I might just not be able to comprehend it, and would love some clarification!
If you got this far, I’m also wondering how these studies could be considered accurate if a lot of the subjects stopped taking the cranberry products?
TL; DR is the first two sections at the top👆
There’s a couple thing to keep in mind that might help it make sense. Meta-analyses, though not without merit, don’t always accomplish the intended goals for a few reasons, two of which this study specifically suffers from. The first is that they combine studies that when they were conducted may have looked at the desired treatments and controls, but they often are doing so in different populations (note they stratify results by elderly, cancer patients etc.) I’m not going to on my phone start pulling the references, but I would venture to guess that the included studies have all sorts of specific groups they were targeting which leads to heterogeniety both in effect size but in interpretation of effect size. Think about it this way, if you are using Dat from many studies with different (often very specific) target populations, does it really make sense to combine them to draw conclusions about a some hypothetical population comprised of those people?
The second thing is sample size. A few thousand seems like a lot until you realize the data in question is incidence. Each subject included either had the disease or they didn’t (it’s 0 or 1) nothing in-between and nothing outside. Interval inference for dichotomous data (especially when it gets substratified down like the authors have done here) often lead to results like the plain language summary presented. That is, everything is null because they tried to say too much, with too little data.
Takeaway is don’t read too much into the findings. The authors were certainly trying to earnestly answer the question (probably), but the existing literature and available data came up short.
I appreciate that. It’s the feeling that I got, but I don’t have any formal education on reading things like this, so I wanted some confirmation or education